In the Boettke post I quote above he also states:
I want to suggest that the syllogism Mises = Austrian economics; Mises = Rothbard; Rothbard = Austro-libertarianism; demonstrate fundamental flaws in Austro-libertarianism; therefore, demonstrated that Rothbard is flawed, therefore, Mises is flawed; is in fact what is flawed and must by [sic] rejected [sic2] serious thinkers in social philosophy and political economy.
Mises may have problems, but they are not the one's supposedly identified in Rothbard and Rand.Who is making this type of syllogism, especially the part that reads "Mises=Rothbard"? Although Rothbard stands on the shoulders of Mises, I would think that even a rudimentary understanding of Mises and Rothbard, especially with regard to Rothbard on the role of government, shows that Rothbard has made major advancements beyond Mises.
I understand that Boettke is, possibly (it's not clear), also saying that Mises does not equal Rothbard, but just where is he hearing this belief advanced outside this one very flawed Cato paper?
And , I have never heard, "Mises = Rothbard; Rothbard = Austro-libertarianism; demonstrate fundamental flaws in Austro-libertarianism". Where is Boettke hearing this stuff? It sounds as though it is a completely Beltarian view to me.